Neuroradiology Boards Questions

The following are True/False questions:

1.   1996

With regard to carotid dissection

1. usually secondary to blunt neck trauma

2. angiographic diagnosis is made by filling of the true and false lumens

3. immediate surgery

2.  1996

concerning neuroblastomatosis

1. chest involvement has an improved prognosis

2. calcification suggests that it is benign

3. originates from nephroblastomatosis

4. can evolve into a ganglioglioma

3.  1996

Chiari I malformations are associated with:

1. Klippel- Feil

2. low lying tonsils

3. syringohydomyelia

4. myelomeningocele

4.  1996

findings associated with absence of the corpus callosum on US

1. lateral ventricles are closer together

2. cingulate gyrus is absent

3. dilatation of the horns( colpocephaly)

4. enlarged cisterna magna

5.  1996

concerning thyroglossal duct cysts

1. the majority are above the hyoid

2. are superficial to the infrahyoid strap muscles

3. always has thick walled enhancement

4. may be septated

5. associated with papillary carcinoma

6.  1996

Concerning communicating hydrocephalus:

1. transependymal flow of CSF

2. enlarged sulci

3. high aqueductal flow artifact ( increased flow)

4 ???

7.  1993

22. Patients with severe autonomic dysreflexia may experience all the following except:

a. tachycardia

b. sweating

c. severe paroxysmal hypertension

d. anxiety

e. piloerection

8.  1995

Which of the following masses are hyperdense on non-contrast-enhanced CT?

1. medulloblastoma

2. acoustic neuroma

3. primary lymphoma

4. prolactinoma

9.  1993 c PreTest

The pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the:

5. infratemporal fossa via the pterygomaxillary fissure

6. oral cavity via the pterygopalatine canal

7. orbit via the superior orbital fissure

8. middle cranial fossa via the foramen ovale

9. inferior meatus of the nasal cavity via the sphenopalatine foramen

10. 1995

Regarding parotid gland neoplasms:

10. Warthin’s tumor commonly has perineural spread

11. Warthin’s tumor is the most common parotid gland neoplasm

12. pleomorphic adenomas are typically medial to the facial nerve

13. pleomorphic adenoma is more common in women

another question on spread???

11. 1995

Regarding Neurofibromatosis Type I

14. acoustic neuroma

15. sphenoid wing dysplasia

16. optic nerve glioma

17. macrocrania

12. 1995

Which of the following are migrational abnormalities?

18. schizencephaly

19. heterotopic bands

20. alobar holoprosencephaly

21. Chiari II malformation

22. unilateral megalencephaly

13. 1995, 1992, 1989

Infarct of the posterior cerebral artery affects:

23. ipsilateral thalamus (95)

24. contralateral thalamus (95)

25. most anterior superior cerebellum (95)

26. posterior aspects of temporal and parietal lobes (95)

27. frontal horn regions

28. head of the caudate (95)

29. contralateral cerebral peduncle (95)

14. 1995

Regarding idiopathic orbital pseudotumor:

30. insidious onset

31. primary therapy is radiation therapy

32. often involves the lacrimal gland

33. can extend intracranially

34. the cause is often unknown

15. 1995

Which of the following would be seen by MR in a patient who is 1 day S/P CVA?

35. hemosiderin deposition

36. mass effect

37. meningeal enhancement

38. parenchymal enhancement

39. vascular enhancement

16. 1994

Which of the following are causes of third cranial nerve palsy?

40. diabetes

41. multiple sclerosis

42. posterior inferior cerebellar artery aneurysm

43. migraine

44. lymphomatous meningitis

17. 1994

Which of the following are potential causes of enhancing posterior third ventricular mass?

45. dysgerminoma

46. vein of Galen aneurysm

47. pineal cyst

48. PNET

49. pinealcytoma

50. chemodectoma

51. colloid cyst

18. 1994

Regarding pituitary microadenoma, which of the following are true?

52. at presentation most are <2 cm in diameter

53. prolactin-secreting adenomas are the most common hormonally active adenomas

54. extension into the cavernous sinus causes extensive amounts of prolactin secretion/excretion

55. bromocriptine treated patients commonly hemorrhage in the pituitary fossa

56. usually centrally located in the pituitary

19. 1993, 1988

Differential diagnosis of a cerebellopontine angle mass in a child includes:

57. epidermoid

58. facial nerve neuroma

59. cerebellar astrocytoma

60. PNET

20. 1993

A hemosiderin ring is:

61. best seen on CT

62. dense on non-contrast enhanced CT

63. dark on T2 weighted MR

64. bright on T1

65. brighter after the administration of gadolinium (T1 weighted images)

21. 1993

Which of the following cause a cystic midline mass that can mimic an enlarged third or fourth ventricle?

66. dermoid cyst

67. intraventricular cysticercosis

68. hypothalamic pilocytic astrocytoma

69. suprasellar arachnoid cyst

70. cerebellar astrocytoma

22.1993

Encephaloceles are associated with which of the following?

71. skull defect

72. syndactyly

73. echogenic kidneys

74. pyelectasis

75. microcephaly

23.  1993

Which of the following are true with regards to amyloid angiopathy?

76. is associated with hemorrhage of the basal ganglia

77. associated with hemorrhage of the brainstem

78. associated with hemorrhage in the cerebral hemisphere

79. is seen most commonly in people with systemic hypertension

80. most commonly seen in the elderly

24.  1994

Symptoms associated with L4 radiculopathy include:

81. hip pain radiating to the lateral thigh

82. gluteal pain

83. absent knee jerk reflex

84. absent ankle jerk reflex

85. hamstring weakness

25.  1994

Regarding gliomas:

86. 70-80% of gliomas in children originate in the brain stem

87. 80% of low grade lesions eventually degenerate into high grade lesions

88. there is a poor prognosis associated with pilocytic astrocytoma with 10-20% ten year survival

89. pilocytic neoplasms are typically lobular, well-marginated, and not calcified

90. the most common presenting age for gliomas is approximately 50 years old

26.  1994, 1992, 1989v

On an injection of contrast into the left vertebral artery, there is non-visualization of the ipsilateral posterior cerebral artery. Which of the following are possible causes?

91. origin from the left internal carotid artery

92. occlusion of the left posterior cerebral artery

93. spasm

94. flow phenomenon

95. aplasia

27.

1993

Which of the following are true regarding CSF rhinorrhea?

96. mucus retention cyst of the frontal sinus can be a cause

97. osteoma of the frontal sinus can be a cause

98. medial blow-out fracture of the orbit is a cause

99. most commonly involves the sphenoid sinus

100. temporal lobe arachnoid cyst can be a cause

28.  1995 ITE

Concerning the use of contrast material:

101. approximately 18 cc is the dose for an internal carotid artery angiogram

102. approximately 30 cc of standard nonionic contrast is the dose for lumbar myelography

103. approximately 4 cc is the dose for an external carotid artery angiogram

104. approximately 25 cc of standard nonionic contrast is the dose for cervical myelography

105. nonionic and ionic contrast material exhibit a similar degree of nephrotoxicity

29.  1993

Which of the following are frequently calcified lesions in the posterior fossa?

106. dermoid

107. astrocytoma

108. medulloblastoma

109. hemangioblastoma

110. acoustic neuroma

30.  1993

Which of the following is associated with the shaken baby syndrome?

111. retinal hemorrhage

112. subdural hematoma

113. cortical hematoma

114. white matter shear injury

31.  1993

Which of the following are associated with increased incidence of primary brain tumor?

115. von Hippel-Lindau

116. Turcot’s

117. Gardner’s

118. tuberous sclerosis

119. sickle cell disease

32.1992

Examples of spinal dysraphism include:

120. diastomatomyelia

121. myelolipoma

122. sacralization of L5

123. syringobulbia

124. Dandy-Walker cyst

33.  1992

Typical features of hemangioblastomas in adults include:

125. calcification

126. cystic

127. presents with hemorrhage

128. avascular

129. presents with Parinaud syndrome

34.  1992

Structures within the superior orbital fissure include:

130. oculomotor nerve

131. ophthalmic artery

132. superior ophthalmic vein

133. maxillary portion of the trigeminal nerve

134. optic nerve

35.  1992

In a 4 y/o male with a suprasellar mass, the diagnostic possibilities include:

135. dermoid

136. germinoma

137. craniopharyngioma

138. Rathke cleft cyst

139. optic chiasm glioma

140. hypothalamic hamartoma

36.  1992

Possible causes of pulsatile tinnitus include:

141. glomus tympanicum tumor

142. glomus jugulare tumor

143. aberrant carotid with carotid canal dehiscence

144. cholesteatoma

145. anterior communicating artery aneurysm

146. posterior communicating artery aneurysm

37.  1992

Sources of epidural hematoma include:

147. middle meningeal artery

148. superficial temporal artery

149. superior sagittal sinus

150. diploic veins

151. vein of Galen

38.  1992

Which of the following are true regarding herpes encephalitis?

152. more commonly seen in children than adults

153. patients are most often immunocompromised

154. often hemorrhagic

155. due to Herpes zoster virus

156. involves the temporal lobes

39.   1993

Regarding meningiomas:

157. bright on T2

158. uncommon in the spine in children

159. located in the atria of the lateral ventricle

160. associated with overproduction of CSF

40.   1991

Regarding anencephaly:

161. most common in males

162. frequently associated with other major organ system abnormalities

163. oligohydramnios is seen early in the 2nd trimester

164. brainstem and some mesencephalon structures are present

41.  1991

Regarding spinal meningiomas:

165. intradural extramedullary

166. more common in cervicothoracic region

167. more common in women

168. hyperintense on T2

42.   1991

Which of the following are associated with elevated alpha-fetoprotein levels?

169. twins

170. closed neural tube defect

171. omphalocele

43.   1991

Periventricular parenchymal calcification is seen in:

172. Sturge-Weber

173. tuberous sclerosis

174. TORCH

175. neurofibromatosis

44.  1991

Which of the following are midline in a child?

176. cerebellar astrocytoma

177. ependymoma

178. hemangioblastoma

179. medulloblastoma

45.   1991

Regarding meningioma:

180. most common location is the atrium

181. spreads along CSF pathways

46.   1991, 1988

The following are phakomatoses:

182. neurofibromatosis

183. tuberous sclerosis

184. ataxia telangiectasia

185. Gardner’s syndrome

186. Peutz-Jeghers

47.  1991

In ataxia telangiectasia, there is inability to repair chromosomal damage:

48.   1994

Which of the following commonly cause hemorrhagic metastases in the brain?

188. melanoma

189. colon

190. lymphoma

191. choriocarcinoma

192. renal cell carcinoma

49.  1996, 1994

Which of the following exhibit dramatic clinical response to steroids?

193. cytotoxic edema secondary to infarct

194. vasogenic edema secondary to tumor

195. herpes encephalitis

196. multiple sclerosis

197. CNS lymphoma

50.   1994

Pineal tumors include:

198. PNET

199. germinoma

200. teratoma

51.  1994

Regarding cavum septum pellucidum:

201. rare in newborns

202. indicates hydrocephalus

203. pathologic

52.   1989

Regarding the appearance of Sturge-Weber syndrome:

204. intracranial calcification

205. skull thickening

206. angioma of the retina

207. intrarenal tumors

208. rhabdomyoma of the heart

53.   1988

Which of the following are causes of intracranial calcifications?

209. Cornelia De Lange

210. Progeria

211. hypoparathyroidism

212. tuberous sclerosis

213. Sturge-Weber syndrome

54. 1996, 1988

Which of the following are true regarding the position of the facial nerve in the internal auditory canal?

214. anterior to the vestibular nerve

215. above the crista falciformis

216. below the crista falciformis

217. superior to the cochlear nerve

55.  1988

Lesions in which of the following areas can result in homonymous hemianopsia?

218. lateral geniculate

219. anterior to the chiasm

220. posterior to the chiasm

221. in the occipital lobe

Neuroradiology Section

Select the single best answer:

56. 1996

Which change will result in the greatest increase in cerebral blood flow?

a. pO2

b. pCO2

c. pH

d. ??

57. 1996

30yo man presents with painless bilateral parotid enlargement. On MRI examination, cystic lesions are present in the parotid glands bilaterally and there is cervical lymphadenopathy. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. HIV lymphoepithelial cyst

b. sarcoidosis

c.???

58.  1996

22 year old with a normal neuro exam who presents with hand numbness. On T2 weighted MR images, high signal foci are seen in the cerebellar peduncle and in the posterior corpus callosum. What is the best dx?

a. MS

b. PML

c???

59.  1996

27 yo man has a CT examination with enlarged ventricles, prominent sulci. 7 months previously, the CT examination was normal. This is most likely due to:

a. HIV encephalopathy

b. multiinfarct dementia

c????

60.   1996

On MRI, there is a high signal vertical lesion in the cord on the sagittal images which disappears after increasing the matrix from 128x256 to 256x256.

a. aliasing

b. truncation

c. chemical shift

61.  1996

72 yo man comes to the ER unconscious with no history. There is prominence of the ventricles and sulci. On MR, T2 weighted, there is a lesion in the temporal lobe which is low signal centrally with a high signal rim. On T1 weighted images, the lesion is isointense. This lesion is likely:

a. hemorrhagic contusion

b. chronic contusion

c. subarachnoid hemorrhage

d. cavernous angioma

e. capillary telangiectasia

62.  1995

In a patient with multiple cerebral aneurysms, the most reliable finding which will accurately localize the site of bleeding is:

a. largest aneurysm

b. irregularity of aneurysm

c. location of the hematoma

d. vasospasm

63.  1993

A 20 y/o was weight lifting and suddenly developed confusion. He has diminished right visual field response. The left pupil is smaller than the right. He is speaking gibberish. His brother has been nursing a cold sore for 10 days. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. herpes encephalitis

b. left internal carotid artery dissection

c. PICA distribution infarct

64.  1995

A 52 y/o interior decorator has just finished 2 weeks of painting a house. She presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the body with loss of pain and temperature sensation on the left side of the face. She also has ataxia and her tongue deviates to the right. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Wallenberg syndrome secondary to left dissection

b. Weber’s syndrome

c. central pontine infarct

d. glioma

e. Horner’s syndrome

65.  1996, 1992, 1988

Which one of the following vessels is affected in the Wallenberg (lateral medullary) stroke syndrome?

a. branches off the basilar artery

b. contralateral AICA

c. ipsilateral PCA

d. contralateral PICA

e. ipsilateral PICA

66.   1995

Which one of the following infections of the brain is most commonly seen in a patient with AIDS?

a. toxoplasmosis

b. cryptococcus

c. CMV encephalitis

d. HIV encephalitis

67.  1995

Which of the following is the most likely cause of an enhancing suprasellar mass in a 1-year-old?

a. neuroblastoma metastasis

b. glioma

c. craniopharyngioma

d. pituitary adenoma

e. dysgerminoma

68.  1993

Regarding orbital pseudotumor:

a. no enhancement on CT

b. painless

c. responds rapidly to steroid and radiation therapy

d. well-defined optic nerve on CT

e. muscle insertion spared

69.   1992

The most common location of an intraventricular meningioma is:

a. atria of the lateral ventricle

b. fourth ventricle

c. posterior third ventricle

d. frontal horns

e. foramen of Monro

f. body of the lateral ventricle

70.  1992

On CT myelograms, filling of the optic nerve sheath represents:

a. normal variant

b. increased intracranial pressure

c. optic nerve glioma

d. optic sheath meningioma

71.  1992

Which is the most likely cause of a lesion in the cerebellum with a sharp medial border at the midline?

a. medulloblastoma

b. subacute infarction

c. hemangioblastoma

d. astrocytoma/glioma

e. metastasis

f. ependymoma

72.  1992

Which of the following is the most common posterior fossa tumor in an adult?

a. hemangioblastoma

b. metastasis

c. glioma

d. medulloblastoma

e. ependymoma

73. 1992

What is the most likely cause of conductive hearing loss and facial nerve palsy in a trauma patient?

a. epidural hematoma

b. vertical fracture of the petrous bone

c. transverse fracture of the petrous bone

d. longitudinal fracture of the petrous bone

74.  1994

A 40 year-old male is involved in a skiing accident. He is initially asymptomatic, but then develops Horner’s syndrome, left-sided facial pain, and ptosis. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a. vertebral artery dissection

b. carotid artery dissection

c. internal carotid artery occlusion

d. epidural hematoma

75.  1996, 1994

A trauma patient has bilateral C6-7 facet dislocation and C6-7 cord level findings with no sensory or motor function below that level. On the following day he regains the bulbocavernous reflex. Which of the following is the best explanation?

a. anterior cord syndrome

b. central cord syndrome

c. lateral cord syndrome

d. posterior cord syndrome

e. total cord syndrome

f. spinal cord shock

76.  1994

Which of the following is the most common supratentorial neoplasm in a child?

a. PNET

b. glioma

c. ependymoma

d. hemangioblastoma

e. meningioma

77. 1994

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a demented 70 y/o man with high intensity on T2-weighted images and focal lesions in the periventricular and subcortical white matter?

a. Alzheimer’s

b. Pick’s disease

c. Multiinfarct dementia

d. Multiple sclerosis

78.  1994, 1988

Which of the following is involved in otosclerosis?

a. malleolus

b. stapedius

c. cochlea

d. vestible

79.  1994, 1992, 1988

Which of the following is the most likely cause of conductive hearing loss and facial nerve palsy in a patient with acute trauma?

a. longitudinal fracture of the temporal bone

b. transverse fracture of the temporal bone

c. temporal lobe hematoma

d. epidural hematoma

80.  1996,1995

Which of the following structures is the most medial structure in the cavernous sinus?

a. trigeminal nerve

b. cranial nerve 6

c. optic nerve

d. fourth cranial nerve

81. 1993

The most common spinal cord tumor in a child is:

a. astrocytoma

b. hemangioblastoma

c. ependymoma

d. hemangioma

82. 1993

The most common primary cerebellar tumor in a child is:

a. hemangioblastoma

b. medulloblastoma

c. cerebellar astrocytoma

d. ependymoma

83.  1994, 1993, 1988

a. cavernous sinus

b. superior orbital fissure

c. optic canal

d. inferior orbital fissure

e. brainstem

84.  1993, 1990, 1989

Which of the following is not associated with tethered cord and spinal dysraphism?

a. diastematomyelia

b. myolipoma

c. hydrosyringomyelia

d. thickening of the filum terminale

e. myelolipoma

85.  1993

A 35 y/o male sustained blunt trauma to the neck two weeks prior to development of amaurosis fugax and Horner’s syndrome. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. aneurysm of the internal carotid artery

b. pseudoaneurysm of the internal carotid artery

c. aneurysm of the vertebral artery

d. pseudoaneurysm of the vertebral artery

86.  1996,1994, 1993

A herniated disc at L4-5 most commonly impinges on which spinal root?

a. L4

b. L5

c. S1

87.  1993

Which of the following modalities is most useful to distinguish recurrent glioblastoma from radiation-induced necrosis?

a. mass effect on CT

b. gadolinium-enhanced MR

d. contrast-enhanced CT

88.  1993

A diabetic patient has a CT which shows enhancement in the inferior frontal lobes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. infarct

b. PML

c. lymphoma

d. fungal encephalitis

e. herpes

89.  1993, 1988

Which of the following is most highly associated with peripheral aneurysms of the MCA?

a. mycotic aneurysm

b. polyarteritis nodosa

c. Berry aneurysm

d. Takayasu’s arteritis

90.  1993

Which of the following is true regarding intraventricular meningioma?

a. it most commonly involves the atrium of the lateral ventricle

b. it frequently seeds the CSF

c. in results in increased CSF production

d. it obtains its blood supply from the external carotid artery

91.  1996, 1994, 1992, 1988

Which of the following is least likely to be a posterior fossa tumor in a child?

a. brainstem glioma

b. choroid plexus papilloma

c. ependymoma

d. astrocytoma

e. PNET

f. hemangioblastoma

92.  1993

Which of the following is the most common cause of a peripheral MCA microaneurysm?

a. polyarteritis nodosa

b. septic emboli

c. intravenous amphetamine

d. berry aneurysm

e. atherosclerosis

93.  1992

A patient with spinal cord trauma has headache, diaphoresis, and blood pressure fluctuations after intravesical instillation of 150 cc of contrast. All symptoms are relieved by insertion of a Foley catheter. What is the level of injury?

a. cervical spine

b. T8-9

c. T12-L4

d. S1-2

e. S3-4

f. cauda equina

94.  1992

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a head trauma patient who loses consciousness, recovers to have a lucid interval, and again loses consciousness?

a. subdural hematoma

b. epidural hematoma

c. contusion

d. subarachnoid hemorrhage

95.  1989, 1990

There is a single ventricle and midline fusion of the thalami. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. holoprosencephaly

b. encephalocele

c. infarct

d. hydrocephalus

96.  1993

A patient with unilateral field cut and medial rectus paralysis has a lesion in:

a. cavernous sinus

b. cerebellopontine angle

c. occipital lobe

d. medulla oblongata and the pons

e optic chiasm

97.   1991

In a patient with complete proximal ICA occlusion, an ipsilateral injection is performed and filling of the distal ipsilateral ICA is seen. What is the supply of blood to the distal ICA?

a. anterior communicating artery

b. retrograde flow via the ophthalmic artery

c. from the posterior circulation

98.  1991

Which of the following is the most convincing evidence against multiple sclerosis in a patient?

a. one neurologic event, normal physical exam

b. normal MR of the brain

c. internuclear ophthalmoplegia

99.  1991

A 30 y/o female had a severe headache 6 days ago. She has a known Berry aneurysm and now presents with an acute headache and one episode of nausea without vomiting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. recurrent subarachnoid hemorrhage

b. communicating hydrocephalus

100.  1991

What is the most likely diagnosis if a 50-60 HU density is seen in the brain and it has peripheral enhancement?

a. aging hematoma

b. high grade astrocytoma

101.  1988

A 45 y/o woman has unilateral papilledema and calcification of the junction of the optic nerve and posterior globe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. retinoblastoma

b. choroidal osteoma

c. Drusen

d. melanoma

Neuroradiology Section

The following are matching questions:

102.  1996

a. anterior

b. lateral

c. medial

d. posterior

e. inferior

1. the thalamus relative to the lateral ventricle

2. malleus relative to the incus

3. jugular fossa relative to the carotid canal

4. caudate nucleus relative to the anterior limb of the internal capsule

103.  1996

80 yo woman with hypertension. Which of the following is the best diagnostic test for the following presenting symptoms.

a. CT

b. MRI

c. transcranial doppler

d. non invasive carotid doppler

1. severe headache

2. two episodes of hand trembling

3. amaurosis fugax.

104.  1996

a. osmotic myelinolysis

b. subacute-- SSPE

c. PML

d. diffuse necrotizing encephalitis

e. subacute rubella

1. rapid elevation of sodium

2. measles

3. immunosuppression

4. chemotherapy and radiation therapy

105.  1995

The following had a relatively primitive drawing where we had to label the following veins:

1. basal vein of Rosenthal

2. inferior sagittal sinus

3. vein of Galen

4. internal cerebral vein

106.  1995

5. mamillary bodies

6. hippocampus

7. caudate nucleus

a. mesial temporal sclerosis

b. Wernicke’s syndrome

c. Huntingdon’s chorea

d. Parkinson’s disease

e. Dilantin therapy

107.  1995

8. associated with orbital cellulitis

9. most commonly associated with mucocele

10. most common location of mucus retention cyst

11. most common location of polyps

a. maxillary sinus

b. frontal sinus

c. ethmoid sinus

108.  1995

12. brachycephaly

13. scaphocephaly

14. macrocrania

15. microcrania

a. Apert’s disease

b. Trisomy 13

c. Chiari II malformation

d. sagittal suture synostosis

109.  1995, 1989 Matching:

19. fascial nerve (95)

20. spinal accessory nerve (95)

a. superior orbital fissure

b. inferior orbital fissure

c. foramen ovale

d. foramen rotundum

e. foramen spinosum

f. jugular foramen

g. stylomastoid foramen

110.  1995, 1992

21. elderly with cortical and subcortical hemorrhage

22. increased risk of bleeding over next 2 weeks

23. progressive bleeding over 24-48 hours

24. predilection for frontal and anterior temporal lobes

25. putamenal infarct or bleed

a. amyloid angiopathy

b. trauma

c. venous angioma

d. mycotic aneurysm

e. hypertension

111. 1994

26. Facial nerve

28. vestibular

a. stapedius

b. tensor tympani

c. buccinator

d. posterior digastric

e. anterior digastric

112.  1994

Regarding the Phakomatoses:

29. giant cell astrocytoma

30. optic nerve glioma

31. bilateral acoustic neuromas

32. hemangioblastoma

33. Shagreen patches

a. Neurofibromatosis, Type I

b. Neurofibromatosis, Type II

c. von Hippel Lindau disease

d. Tuberous sclerosis

113.  1993

34. Commonly occurs in the horizontal segment of MCA

35. Typically spares the bifurcation of vessels

36. in the ICA occurs near the skull base

37. vertebral artery at approximately C1-C2

38. vertebral artery at the base of the skull

a. embolus/thrombus

b. vasospasm

c. dissection

d. mycotic aneurysm

e. ulcerated plaque

114.  1994, 1992, 1989

39. Internal auditory canal

40. trigone of the lateral ventricle

41. inferior colliculus

a. anterior/inferior cerebellar artery

b. posterior choroidal artery, lateral branch

c. anterior choroidal artery

d. precentral cerebellar vein

e. PICA

f. superior cerebellar artery

115.  1992

42. conductive hearing loss

43. incontinence

44. hoarseness

a. ossicular dislocation

b. meningioma at the foramen magnum

c. glomus jugulare tumor

d. glomus tympanicum tumor

116.  1994, 1989

45. ring enhancing lesion that is hyperdense centrally on CT

46. ring enhancing lesion with a thick wall and an inner surface that is shaggy

a. lymphoma

b. highly aggressive glioma

c. hematoma at two weeks

d. infarct at two days

117.  1991

47. Organ of Zuckerkandl (96)

48. Arnold Chiari II

49. Dandy Walker cyst

a. most common location of extraadrenal pheochromocytoma.

b. hypoplasia or aplasia of corpus callosum

c. enlarged posterior fossa

118.  1991

50. large acoustic neuroma

51. hemangioblastoma

a. hearing loss

b. brain and spinal cord

119.  1994, 1990, 1989

52. meningomyelocele

53. normal 4th ventricle

54. vermian hypoplasia

55. tonsillar herniation

56. absence of corpus callosum

a. Chiari I

b. Chiari II

c. Chiari III

d. Chiari IV

120.  1988

57. craniopharyngioma

58. pinealcytoma

59. cerebellar astrocytoma

a. anterior 3rd ventricle

b. tuber cinereum

c. posterior 3rd ventricle

d. hydrocephalus