Nuclear Medicine Section

The following are True/False questions:

1. 1996

Ventriculography for a R to L shunt

1. use Tc99-MAA

2. external jugular injection is superior to antecubital injection

3. can use in vivo labeling is acceptable

4. ignores bronchial artery perfusion

5. put a region of interest over the lung.

2.  1996

In a pt given Captopril:

1. increase in renin

2. increase in sodium absorption

3. increase in potassium absorption

4. increase in angiotensin 2

5. increase in aldosterone

3.  1996

Concerning CCK

1. administering CCK can decrease the number of false positive results

2. should not be given following administration of morphine

3. should be given to pt on TPN

4. should be give as a rapid IV bolus

4.  1995

Regarding technetium-99m-labeling of red blood cells:

1. in order to do in vivo labeling, 0.5-1.0 mg of stannous ion is injected intravenously

2. ???

5.  1992

Regarding persantine stress thallium:

3. direct dilatory effect on the coronary arteries

4. dilatation is reversed by aminophylline

5. chest pain indicates ischemia

6. its IV half-life is longer than that of adenosine

6.  1995

Regarding technetium-99m-Sestamibi cardiac imaging:

7. the first pass uptake is less than that of thallium-201

8. Sestamibi typically rapidly redistributes within the myocardium

9. the uptake in the myocardium is by passive diffusion

another question here???

6a.  1995

Regarding thallium-201 myocardial imaging:

10. thallium-201 myocardial imaging uses a low energy high sensitivity collimator

11. uses a 256 x 256 matrix for imaging

12. patients are imaged with their left arm above the head

13. the detectors move from a right anterior oblique position to a left posterolateral position

14. 36 stations are used with 20 to 40 second intervals at each stations

7. 1995

Gallium-67 is preferred to Indium-111 for the following:

15. acute osteomyelitis

16. vertebral osteomyelitis

17. suspected pulmonary inflammation

18. fever of unknown origin

19. intraabdominal abscess

8. 1995

Regarding nuclear medicine ventriculography:

20. the paradox image is obtained by subtracting the end-diastolic frame from the end-systolic frame

21. the normal image is obtained by subtracting the end-systolic frame from the end-diastolic frame

22. both paradoxical and normal imaging are performed in the anterior projection

23. the atria and ventricles are out of phase by 90 degrees

24. images are obtained in 32 separate segments of equal time with cycling through the segments based on the position in the cardiac cycle

9. 1995

Regarding radionuclide myocardial imaging:

25. thallium stress imaging is more sensitive for detecting disease of the LAD artery than exercise EKG

26. thallium stress imaging is sensitive for detecting myocardial ischemia when an EKG is uninterpretable secondary to arrhythmia

27. thallium stress imaging is sensitive for detecting ischemia in regions of abnormal wall motion

28. stress thallium is more sensitive for mapping regions of ischemia than exercise EKG demonstrating 2-3 mm of ST depression

29. another one

10. 1995

Regarding technetium-99m MDP radionuclide bone scan:

30. the agent localizes to bone in 3 hours

31. the agent causes temporary cessation in bone metabolic activity (growth???)

32. MDP chemiabsorbs to osteoclasts

33. ???

11. 1995, 1991, 1988

Regarding gastric emptying examination by nuclear medicine:

34. 300 mCi of Tc-99m-SC in 30 cc water

35. fluids show linear emptying curve (95)

36. there is exponential emptying with solids (95)

37. demonstrate 50% emptying at 30 minutes for fluids in a normal study (95)

38. lipids will increase rate of emptying (95)

12. 1995

Contraindications to the administration of morphine during a DISIDA scan include:

39. pancreatitis

40. visualization of activity in the small bowel

41. dilated common bile duct

42. gallbladder filling

43. chronic cholecystitis

13. 1995, 1994

The dose of I-131 for hyperthyroidism needs to be increased in which of the following:

44. patient is on PTUracil

45. patient is on beta blockers

46. toxic multinodular goiter

47. previous radiation to the neck

48. large gland size

49. cardiac disease exacerbated by hyperthyroidism

14. 1993, 1991

Concerning radionuclide imaging of the thyroid:

50. Iodine 125 is helpful in imaging substernal thyroid

51. photopeaks of technetium and Iodine 123 are approximately similar

52. Iodine 123 obviates the problem of discordant nodules

53. the dose to the thyroid is lowest with Iodine 123

54. the dose per mCi of Iodine 131 is approximately 1.5 rads

55. a cold lesion in a child is more likely to be malignant than in an adult

15. 1993

Regarding Thallium-201 imaging:

56. intracellular distribution

57. First pass extraction equal to 50%

58. Flow rate must differ by 2 to 1 to be positive

59. The energy of the imaged photons are 65 to 80 keV

60. with exercise there is increased activity in the liver which can obscure the left heart border

16. 1993

Which of the following items can be used to evaluate uniformity in nuclear medicine Gamma cameras?

61. Cobalt 57

62. Cobalt 60

63. Technetium 99m and bar phantom

64. point source of technetium 99m

65. Cesium 137

17. 1993

Concerning the radionuclide evaluation of CSF leak:

66. pledget activity greater than 1.5x plasma activity indicates leak

67. imaging should begin 6-12 hours after lumbar injection

68. agent of choice is Tc-99m DTPA

69. patient should be positioned supine for imaging

18. 1992

Regarding V/Q scans:

70. high probability scan in a patient with prior PE is less likely to be PE than a high probability scan in a patient who has never had a PE

71. greater than half of patients with PE have a high probability scan

72. Xe-127 can be used after Tc-99m perfusion scan

73. intermediate probability scan is not useful

74. the probability of PE does not depend on clinical suspicion in a patient with a low probability scan

19. 1992

In a patient with a segmental CXR abnormality:

75. V/Q can still be useful to rule out a PE

20.   1992

A LEAP collimator:

76. is more sensitive to lateral decentering

77. pinhole is more sensitive

78. is designed to operate similar to an I-131 collimator

21.   1992, 1988

Regarding Gallium-67 imaging in a patient with AIDS:

79. is more sensitive than CXR for opportunistic infection of the lungs

80. reverts to normal after 5 days of therapy for PCP

81. uptake in hila is suggestive of PCP

82. uptake in the abdominal nodes is specific for MAI

22.   1992

Regarding thin layer chromatography for Tc-99m-MAA preparation:

83. sterile saline is the solvent of choice

84. Tc-99m-MAA must first be hydrolyzed

85. Tc-99m-MAA moves with the solvent front

86. free technetium stays at the origin

87. USP limit activity of free technetium to 20%

23.   1992

True statements regarding the use of bone scan in patients with malignancy include:

88. it should be performed only in symptomatic individuals with prostate cancer

89. it is more sensitive than plain X-ray to detect metastases in patients with renal cell cancer

90. prostate metastases rarely display decreased activity

91. it does not change prognosis in non small cell cancer of the lung

92. flare effect in patients with breast cancer indicates progression of the

 disease

24.   1994

Regarding I-131 total body imaging:

93. limited to 3-5 mCi because of total body dose

94. evaluation of abdominal metastases is limited because of GI uptake

95. is rarely performed beyond 24 hours

97. has a high sensitivity for detection of well differentiated medullary carcinoma

25.   1993

Gamma camera resolution is improved by:

103. increased hole diameter of the collimator

104. thinner septae

105. pinhole collimator

106. increased collimator length

26.   1996,1993

Concerning Alzheimer’s disease and nuclear medicine scintigraphy:

107. findings do not correlate with clinical findings

108. can mimic multiinfarct dementia

109. has preference for frontal and temporal lobes

110. has preference for the sensory motor strip

27.   1994

Regarding V/Q examination:

111. low probability cannot be given in a patient with diffuse alveolar infiltrates

112. high probability study cannot be given in a patient with COPD involving >50% of the lung

113. 25% of patients with COPD have a fissure sign

114. stripe sign is seen with pleural effusion

28.   1994

Possible causes of increased activity in the kidney region on bone imaging include:

115. neuroblastoma

116. Wilms tumor

117. radiation therapy

118. chemotherapy

119. antibiotic therapy

29.   1994, 1988

Which of the following are reasons for using technetium pertechnetate for thyroid scanning?

120. patient on PTU

121. exam needs to be completed in two hours

122. patient unable to take oral medications

123. previous evaluation demonstrates hot nodule on pertechnetate examination

124. evaluation of uptake for I-131 therapy for hyperthyroidism

30.   1991, 1988

Regarding reflux studies:

125. anterior views are more sensitive than posterior views

126. should be done 2 hours after ingestion

127. sulfur colloid or indium should be used

128. the patient drinks in an erect position and is scanned while supine or prone

31.   1991

129. True or False: a hot cranial suture on bone scan which is normal on plain film represents benign disease.

32.   1991

130. True or False: Krypton-81m is best for COPD

33.   1991

Using Tc-99m-DTPA for a V/Q scan:

131. about 90% of DTPA comes out in the sputum

132. must collect urine for 6 hours and give it to the radiation safety officer

133. nurses can only have 15 minutes contact every 6 hours

134. the patient must remain 12 feet away from other patients

135. may be done in a positive pressure room

34. 1994

Gallium can be used in the chest to detect:

136. lymphoma

137. nocardia

138. Kaposi sarcoma

139. TB

140. PCP

35. 1994, 1992

Which of the following are causes of falsely low EF on radionuclide cine angio (MUGA scan):

141. 30% asymmetric energy window (technetium peak)

142. incorrect background subtraction

143. systolic region of interest is too small

144. overlap of left atrium and left ventricle

145. impaired diastolic function

36. 1994

Advantages of SPECT thallium over planar imaging are:

146. faster imaging time

147. more sensitive for ischemic changes

148. better detection of specific vessel disease

149. increased specificity

150. increased sensitivity for subendocardial infarction

37. 1996,1994

Regarding the evaluation of hemangioma with technetium labeled RBCs.

151. detection of lesion > 2 cm on SPECT imaging is nearly 100%

152. evaluation more than four hours after injection increases the false negative rate

153. increased flow in early imaging is essential for diagnosis

154. in vivo labeling significantly decreases sensitivity

38. 1994

Regarding thallium and technetium substance cardiac imaging:

155. there is a higher extraction fraction with thallium than with sestamibi

156. there is greater cardiac activity with thallium than with sestamibi

157. time to imaging is less important with sestamibi than with thallium

158. sestamibi does not redistribute

39. 1992

Regarding MUGA:

159. atrial fibrillation degrades the quality of the scan

160. first pass study is more accurate for RVEF than conventional MUGA

161. inappropriately small systolic ROI causes artifactually low EF

40. 1993

Regarding PET and SPECT:

162. PET uses nuclides that have longer half-life

163. imaging in longitudinal plane for SPECT

164. axis of rotation more important for SPECT

165. imaging in axial plane in PET

41. 1988

Which of the following are checked daily as part of quality assurance?

172. linearity

173. accuracy

174. constancy

175. geometric efficiency

42. 1988

Regarding the thallium-technetium subtraction technique; a focus of activity could represent:

176. parathyroid adenoma

177. thyroid nodule

43. 1989, 1988

On a thallium-201 treadmill test, the patient is unable to reach maximum exercise secondary to leg pain. Thallium-201 gives a reversing lesion in the septum. Which of the following are true?

178. only angina or ST segment depression should stop the test

179. leg pain is an OK reason to stop the test

180. the results are definitely normal

181. the results are definitely abnormal

182. the patient should repeat the test with dipyridamole

183. the patient should have cardiac catherization

44. 1989, 1988

A 71-year-old man has a MUGA test. His resting ejection fraction is 52%. With exercise his ejection fraction is 51%. Which of the following are true?

184. the resting EF is normal

185. the exercise EF is normal

186. the decrease of EF in exercise is expected

187. normal resting EF should be at least 55%

Nuclear Medicine

Select the single best answer

45. 1996

A women is 2 days status post thyroidectomy for papillary carcinoma. What can she expect next:

1. XRT of the neck as soon as her surgical bed heals

2. treatment with I 131 approximately 6 weeks later

3. start with 0.3mg of levothyroxine

4. ???

5. check calcium levels

46. 1996

Which of the following CANNOT be used for parathyroid imaging?

1. Thallium and pertechnetate

2. I131 and pertechnetate

3. Tc99-sestamibi , acute and delayed imaging

4. Tc99-sestamibi and Tc99 pertechnetate

5. I131 and Thallium

47. 1993

Concerning Iodine-131 therapy for postoperative treatment of thyroid carcinoma. The appropriate dose for treating lymph node metastases is:

a. 15-30 mCi

b. 25-50 mCi

c. 100-200 mCi

d. 250-500 mCi

e. 500 mCi and above

48. 1995

Regarding technetium-99m-labeled red blood cells, technetium pertechnetate binds to which of the following sites?

a. alpha chain of hemoglobin molecule

b. beta chain of hemoglobin molecule

c. red cell membrane

d. iron component of the hemoglobin

49. 1995, 1989, 1988

Regarding technetium-99m sulfur colloid for detection of GI bleed:

a. has greater sensitivity than angiography

b. is best for upper GI bleeds

c. is good for detecting intermittent bleeds

d. requires labeling of red blood cells

50. 1995v, 1992, 1989

The most likely condition to show cold nodules on technetium-99m sulfur colloid liver-spleen scan in a 40 y/o female:

a. FNH

b. metastatic colon cancer

c. metastatic breast cancer

d. adenoma

e. Budd-Chiari

f. contamination by alumina

51. 1995

Which of the following agents can be used to treat diffuse bony metastases?

a. P-32

b. Strontium-90

c. Strontium-89

d. Strontium-85m

52. 1995

Regarding evaluation of brain death with nuclear scintigraphy:

a. barbituate intoxication invalidates the results

b. it has no role in the determination of brain death

c. a "hot nose" sign is diagnostic of brain death

d. delayed activity in the brain following Tc-99m-HMPAO administration is suggestive of the diagnosis

e. ???

53. 1995

Regarding the "stripe sign" in ventilation-perfusion imaging of the lungs:

a. indicates a peripheral perfusion defect

b. cannot be interpreted in the presence of small bilateral pleural effusions

c. commonly seen in patients with COPD

d. indicates evidence of perfusion in the periphery of the pleura

54. 1995

Concerning radionuclide ventriculography evaluation of a left-to-right shunt, which of the following is false?

a. accurately determines the hematologic size of the shunt

b. accurately determines the anatomic size of the shunt

c. can determine the magnitude of pulmonic stenosis

d. examination is suboptimal if a high bolus is not given

e. the uptake in the lungs is useful information for evaluation

55. 1995

A 30 y/o woman who is otherwise healthy presents with a 1 day history of shortness of breath and chest pain. Chest radiograph and EKG are normal. Ventilation-perfusion scan reveals 5 small peripheral segmental perfusion defects with a normal ventilation component. Which of the following is most appropriate?

a. perform emergent pulmonary angiography

b. admit the patient and schedule elective pulmonary angiography on the following day

c. begin the patient on anticoagulant medication with no further studies needed

d. repeat the ventilation-perfusion scan in 48 hours

e. no need for further imaging, do not begin patient on anticoagulant medication

56. 1995

Regulations state that the dose calibrator is required to measure radionuclide doses with the maximum error being +/-____%?

a. 5

b. 10

c. 20

d. 25

e. 50

57. 1995, 1992

Which of the following is least likely to cause uptake in the liver on Tc-99m-MDP bone scan?

a. metastatic colon cancer (92)

b. contamination of the agent with aluminum (92)

c. osteosarcoma metastasis (92, 95)

d. metastatic breast cancer (92, 95)

e. contamination of the mixing vial by air (92)

f. focal nodular hyperplasia (95)

h. hepatitis (95)

58. 1995

A single lesion within the right lobe of the liver is initially cold on technetium-99m RBC imaging. It shows slow increase in intensity with centripetal fill in. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. metastasis

b. hemangioma

c. focal nodular hyperplasia

d. adenoma

e. hepatocellular carcinoma

59. 1995

Which of the following is not a cause of diffuse uptake of technetium-99m MDP in the bones with no appreciable uptake in the kidneys?

a. hyperparathyroidism

b. aggressive osteoporosis

c. diffuse osteoblastic bony metastases

d. hyperthyroidism

e. chronic renal disease

60. 1995, 1992

What would be the expected finding in a captopril renal scan in a patient with right renal artery stenosis?

a. delayed, decreased uptake in the right kidney

b. increased uptake in the right kidney

c. equal activity bilaterally

d. no uptake in the right kidney

e. early uptake in the right kidney

61. 1993

All of the following are true except.

Indium labeled white blood cell scan in osteomyelitis:

a. useful for following antibiotic treated osteomyelitis

b. useful for detecting spinal osteomyelitis

c. useful for detecting acute superimposed on chronic osteomyelitis

d. useful for detecting osteomyelitis in a fracture

e. useful for detecting osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia

62. 1993

Which of the following is least likely to produce renal uptake on Technetium MDP bone scan?

a. chemotherapy

b. nephrocalcinosis

c. dehydration

d. radiation therapy

e. aluminum contamination

63. 1993, 1989

A rim sign and non-visualization of the gallbladder after 4 hours on a DISIDA scan is associated with:

a. acalculus cholecystitis

b. gangrenous cholecystitis

c. hepatic abscesses

d missed torsion

64. 1992

Small matched V/Q defects makes the likelihood of PE:

a. <1%

b. 5-10%

c. 50%

d. 60-80%

e. >90%

65. 1992

Regarding "shin splints" on bone scan:

a. normal

b. hot first and second phases, normal third

c. hot first and second phases, fades on third

d. normal first and second phases, hot on third

e. hot on all three phases.

66. 1996, 1994, 1993, 1992, 1991

MIBG cannot be used to scan:

a. neuroblastoma

b. medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

c. pheochromocytoma

d. adrenal aldosteronoma

e. paraganglioma

67. 1994, 1992, 1989

After 45 minutes in a DISIDA scan, activity is present in the liver, biliary tree, and bowel. The next step should be:

a. morphine

b. fatty meal

c. reinject DISIDA and scan for 4 hours

d. inject Tc-sulfur colloid and scan

e. nothing - diagnosis of acute cholecystitis is made

f. treatment with Cholecystokinin and further evaluation

68. 1996, 1994, 1992

a. Graves disease

b. Hashimoto thyroiditis

c. subacute thyroiditis (also called Dequervain thyroiditis)

d. acute suppurative thyroiditis

e. thyroiodine intoxication

69. 1992

In a V/Q scan with matched V and Q defects and the same sized defect on CXR, what is the probability of PE?

a. very low probability

b. low probability

c. intermediate probability

d. high probability

70. 1994

Increased uptake on Gallium-67 imaging is least likely to be seen in an AIDS patient with which one of the following diseases?

a. Nocardia

b. PCP

c. Cryptococcus

d. CMV

e. Lymphoma

71. 1996,1994, 1989

A woman is 7 months pregnant, has a history of breast carcinoma, and has new onset right hip pain. Tc-99m-MDP bone scan should:

a. not be performed because of the uptake of Tc-99m by the fetus

b. not be performed because the Tc-99m interferes with therapy

c. not be performed because the patient is known to have breast carcinoma so the examination is therefore unnecessary.

d. be performed

72. 1993

Which of the following is the best test to determine the response of chronic osteomyelitis to antibiotics?

a. Indium-111 WBC scan

b. Gallium-67 scan

c. Tc-99m MDP scan

d. sulfur colloid scan

73. 1991

The probability of PE in a scan in which a few small scattered subsegmental mismatches are seen is:

a. low

b. intermediate

c. moderately high

d. high

74. 1994

In a cirrhotic patient being evaluated, colloid shift of colloid on liver-spleen scan is due to:

a. portal hypertension

b. hepatocellular dysfunction

c. varices

d. intrahepatic shunting

e. altered or activation of the extrahepatic RES function

75. 1994

In a bone scan with diffuse increased activity in the bones and decreased activity in the kidneys as well as increased activity in the stomach and lungs. What is the most likely cause.

a. chronic renal failure with renal osteodystrophy

b. metastatic disease

c. breast carcinoma with hypocalcemia

d. mucinous producing carcinoma

e. hyperthyroidism with free Technetium

76. 1994

What is the probability of PE in a patient who has a normal CXR with one large and one moderate defect on perfusion and a normal ventilation component?

a. low probability

b. intermediate probability

c. high probability

d. indeterminate

77. 1994

In a patient who is being evaluated with In-111-labeled WBCs that were damaged during the labeling process, where would increased activity be noted?

a. lung

b. salivary glands

c. kidneys

d. liver

e. bone marrow

78. 1994

A patient who had an MI three years ago is shown to have an 80% stenosis on cardiac catheterization. Heart examination with radioactivity labeled ammonia shows decreased activity and evaluation with F18-labeled FDG shows increased activity. The most likely cause is:

a. scar

b. infarct

c. ischemia and scar

d. stunned myocardium

e. hibernating myocardium

79. 1994

Persistently increasing activity on a MAG 3 curve would not be seen in which one of the following diseases?

a. ATN

b. cyclosporin toxicity

c. pyelonephritis

d. obstruction

e. renal artery stenosis following captopril administration

80. 1996,1994, 1988

Photopeak testing and saline chromatography:

a. pyrogen testing

b. detection of breakthrough molybdenum

c. sterility testing

d. detection of aluminum contamination

81. 1992, 1989v

The best time to image a myocardial  infarct with Tc-99m-pyrophosphate is:

a. <12 hours

b. 12-24 hours

c. 1-3 days

d. 5-7 days

e. > 8 days

82. 1993

The best indicator of prognosis at 8 hours status post myocardial infarction is:

a. negative pyrophosphate scan

b. positive pyrophosphate scan

c. positive antimyosin scan (technetium actin-myosin??)

d. ejection fraction of 25% on MUGA scan

e. increased uptake in the lung on thallium scan

83. 1993

In a child with missed torsion of the testicle, the nuclear medicine finding is:

a. cut-off sign

b. photopenic defect

c. normal

d. hyperemic

e. donut sign

84. 1993

A patient receives 5000 rads to the L3 vertebral body over 4 weeks. Which of the following radionuclide uptake patterns is seen on a bone scan 6 months later?

a. increased activity in the entire lumbar spine

b. increased activity at L3

c. decreased activity at L3

d. decreased activity in the entire lumbar spine

85. 1989

What is the appearance of torsion of the appendix of the testicle on technetium-99m pertechnetate imaging?

a. hyperemic

b. donut sign

c. cut off sign

d. normal

86. 1993 c PreTest

Diffuse pulmonary activity is noted during a sulfur-colloid scan. Which of the following is the least likely cause?

a. patient on estrogen therapy

b. sarcoid

c. cirrhosis

d. widespread pulmonary metastases

e. collagen vascular disease

Nuclear Medicine Questions

The following are matching questions:

87. 1996

a. molybdenum breakthrough

b. technetium dioxide

c. aluminum breakthrough

d. sterility

e. pyrogenicity

1. photopeak

2. saline chromatography

88. 1996

a. high probability

b. intermediate prob

c. indeterminant

d. low probability

1. four moderate ventilation perfusion mismatches with a normal CXR

2. There is <50% V/Q match in one lung and less than 75% V/Q match in the other lung. The CXR is normal or nearly normal.

3. small V/Q mismatch which is significantly smaller than the lesion seen on CXR

89. 1996

Select the appropriate collimator

a. low energy, general all purpose

b. high energy , general all purpose

c. medium energy, general all purpose

d. high resolution, general all purpose

e. high sensitivity, general all purpose

1. I131 whole body imaging

2. Gallium whole body imaging

3. Tc99-DTPA renal scintigraphy

90.

Matching

a. decreased uptake temporoparietal region

b. subcortical decreased uptake

1. multiinfarct dementia

2. Alzheimers

91. 1995

1. associated with other endocrine abnormalities

2. when diffusely metastatic, most likely to respond to I-131 therapy

a. medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

b. papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

c. follicular carcinoma of the thyroid

d. anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid

92. 1994, 1993

Concerning Technetium-99m pertechnetate red blood cell radionuclide preparation:

3. Stannous chloride

4. EDTA

5. Technetium dioxide

6. dilithium crystals

a. binds excess alumina

b. an insoluble impurity

c. reducing agent

d. reactive species of technetium

e. most effective in matter-antimatter propulsion

93. 1994, 1988

Match the method of uptake:

7. Indium-111 WBCs

8. Tc-99m-HIDA

9. labeled red blood cells for a spleen scan

10. Gallium-67 citrate

11. Tc-99m MDP

a. Phagocytosis

b. active transport

c. passive transport (diffusion)

d. metabolized

e. sequestration

f. chemabsorption

94. 1992, 1991

12. MAG 3

13. DMSA

14. DTPA

15. orthoiodohippuran

a. filtration only

b. binds to -SH groups

c. cortex + medulla

d. activity used to measure effective renal plasma flow

95. 1996,1994, 1992

16. osteoblastoma

17. fibrous cortical defect

18. neuroblastoma

a. normal bone scan

b. hot on third phase only

c. mixed hot and cold lesions

d. hot on all three phases

96. 1992

Match the dose critical organ with the agent:

19. In-111 WBC

20. Tl-201

a. spleen

b. heart

c. colon

d. kidneys

e. bladder

97. 1994, 1992

21. diaphragmatic creep

22. left bundle branch block

23. breast attenuation

a. reversible septal defect

b. fixed septal defect

c. reversible inferior defect

d. apical thinning

e. fixed lateral wall defect

f. thinning of the LV

g. anterolateral wall defect

98. 1993

24. study performed at rest with 85% occlusion of the LAD

25. 45% occlusion of the LAD after exercise

a. increased thallium perfusion scan

b. decreased thallium perfusion scan

c. normal study

99. 1991

26. Pentagastrin

27. DISIDA

a. Meckel diverticulum

b. Phenobarbital

100. 1991

Regarding GFR vs. ERPF (effective renal plasma flow), which is more affected in:

28. ureteral obstruction

29. ATN

30. renal artery stenosis

101. 1989

Matching regarding imaging with I-123:

31. autonomous adenoma

32. papillary cell carcinoma

33. follicular cell carcinoma

34. discordant nodule

35. non-toxic multinodular goiter

a. cold nodule

b. hot nodule

c. both hot and cold nodules

102. 1994

36. Acute ureteral obstruction

37. column of Bertin

a. technetium

b. DTPA, optional treatment with Lasix

c. DMSA

d. MAG 3

e. DTPA with captopril

103. 1993, 1989

38. Iodine 131 Hippuran

39. DMSA Technetium

40. Technetium DTPA

a. binds to sulfhydryl groups

b. glomerular filtration

c. tubular secretion

d. tubular filtration

104. 1993

Match the radionuclide with its source:

41. beta-emitters

42. radionuclide disturbed when chemically separated

43. half-life too long for nuclear medicine

a. cyclotron

b. generator

c. nuclear reactor

d. mining

105. 1993

Match the half-life

44. carbon 11

45. Tc-99m

46. I-131

47. Tl-201

a. 20 minutes

b. 6 hours

c. 72 hours

d. 8 days

*